[B-Greek] John 4:41: "PLEIOUS"
Carl Conrad
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Fri Apr 3 11:15:11 EDT 2009
PLEIOUS can be either nominative or accusative. It is a contraction of
PLEIO(S)/ES, which is an alternative form to PLEIONES.
On Apr 3, 2009, at 10:40 AM, A. J. Birch wrote:
> "KAI POLLWi PLEIOUS EPISTEUSAN DIA TON LOGON AUTOU" (John 4:41).
>
> Isn't "PLEIOUS" accusative? If so, how can it be the subject of
> "EPISTEUSAN"? Is it that the phrase "POLLWi PLEIOUS" is an idiomatic
> phrase, meaning something like 'by far the majority of them'?
>
> Andrew J. Birch
> Palma de Mallorca, Spain
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