"KAI POLLWi PLEIOUS EPISTEUSAN DIA TON LOGON AUTOU" (John 4:41). Isn't "PLEIOUS" accusative? If so, how can it be the subject of "EPISTEUSAN"? Is it that the phrase "POLLWi PLEIOUS" is an idiomatic phrase, meaning something like 'by far the majority of them'? Andrew J. Birch Palma de Mallorca, Spain