[B-Greek] John 4:41: "PLEIOUS"

A. J. Birch AJB1212 at ono.com
Fri Apr 3 10:40:25 EDT 2009


"KAI POLLWi PLEIOUS EPISTEUSAN DIA TON LOGON AUTOU" (John 4:41).

Isn't "PLEIOUS" accusative? If so, how can it be the subject of "EPISTEUSAN"? Is it that the phrase "POLLWi PLEIOUS" is an idiomatic phrase, meaning something like 'by far the majority of them'?

Andrew J. Birch
Palma de Mallorca, Spain


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