[B-Greek] John 6:40 - PAS - "ALL" or "ALL THOSE WHO" ? (Iver Larsen)
Carl Conrad
cwconrad2 at mac.com
Thu Aug 6 09:06:07 EDT 2009
On Aug 6, 2009, at 8:52 AM, Luke Firth wrote:
> If I understand this question...
>
> the basics of it is simply the fact that the text reads... πας ὁ
> θεωρων...
>
> ὁ θεωρων = Part. Act. Pres. Nom. Sing. Masc. "Participle
> acting
> as a noun" = the one who sees
>
> the πας before this participle seems to add a spectrum of 'every'
> or
> 'all' of the 'ones who see'.
> THEREFORE: Together they make... "ALL THOSE WHO [SEE]"
> πας by itself does not get this translation.
>
> what is more confusing to me is the reasoning behind the singular. ALL
> THOSE WHO seems to want a plural, not singular: ὁ θεωρων
> If anyone can answer this for me that would be handy...
>
>
> i hope i have read this question right. Maybe you wanted something
> else. Maybe that was already obvious?
You wonder why your English equivalent 'ALL THOSE WHO [SEE]" doesn't
represent a Greek plural (which would in fact be PANTES hOI
QEWROUNTES ... You exemplify the problem of the "one-word-gloss": PAS
in the singular does NOT mean "all" but "every" or "any." The
appropriate woodenly-literal sense of PAS hO QEWRWN ... is
"every(one) who sees ... "
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
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