[B-Greek] John 6:40 - PAS - "ALL" or "ALL THOSE WHO" ? (Iver Larsen)

Sarah Madden sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
Thu Aug 6 14:20:24 EDT 2009


Since they are both singular (PAS) and (hO QEWRWN), wouldn't this
combination still be singular ("everyone who sees")? Just a thought.

Sarah ><>
Maryland
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com

On Thu, Aug 6, 2009 at 8:52 AM, Luke Firth <luke.firth.mail at gmail.com>wrote:

> If I understand this question...
>
> the basics of it is simply the fact that the text reads... πας ὁ
> θεωρων...
>
> ὁ θεωρων = Part. Act. Pres. Nom. Sing. Masc. "Participle acting
> as a noun" = the one who sees
>
> the πας before this participle seems to add a spectrum of 'every' or
> 'all' of the 'ones who see'.
> THEREFORE: Together they make... "ALL THOSE WHO [SEE]"
> πας by itself does not get this translation.
>
> what is more confusing to me is the reasoning behind the singular. ALL
> THOSE WHO seems to want a plural, not singular:  ὁ θεωρων
> If anyone can answer this for me that would be handy...
>
>
> i hope i have read this question right. Maybe you wanted something
> else. Maybe that was already obvious?
>
> enjoy
>
> Luke
> _________________
> May Adonai bless you and keep you
> May Adonai make His face shine on you and show you His favor
> May Adonai lift up His face toward you and give you peace
> _________________
> (Numbers 6:24-26)
>
>
>
>
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-- 
Sarah ><>
sarah.r.madden at gmail.com
work: 301.429.8189



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