[B-Greek] MH EPI PORNEIA in Matthew 19:9
Harold Holmyard
hholmyard3 at earthlink.net
Tue Feb 17 17:14:53 EST 2009
Will,
>
> I realize that this is a highly controversial issue, thus I wish to preface
> this email by saying that my question is of a strictly grammatical nature.
>
> My question is this, why do most (if not all) English versions translate the
> "exception clause" of Matthew 19:9 as "except for fornication"?
>
> In other words, I cannot see in any way how MH EPI PORNEIA could be
> translated as "except for fornication". In Matthew 5:32, the clause PAREKTOS
> LOGOU PORNEIAS can certainly be translated as "except for the reason of
> unchasity" (NASB). But as far as I can tell, this is not equivelant to the
> clause in Matthew 19:9.
>
> I have done quite a bit of research as to this question and I have yet to
> find ONE commentary that addresses this grammatical question. I have also
> read a paper concerning Erasmus' addition to his 1st edition of his
> Greek-Latin New Testament (he added EI to the above stated clause of Matthew
> 19:9, thus making it read EI MH EPI PORNEIA or "except for fornication").
> This seems possible, but I again, this seems to be getting away from our
> text as we have it.
>
HH: You can't see "in any way" how "not for fornication" could imply
"except for fornication." Just put the phrase in the context and try to
get a meaning out of it. The thought that clearly comes to mind is
"except.":
And I tell you, whoever divorces his wife--not for sexual
immorality--and marries another, commits adultery."
"Not for sexual immorality" gives the one reason for divorce that would
not lead to Jesus' conclusion. So it is an exception.
Yours,
Harold Holmyard
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