[B-Greek] MH EPI PORNEIA in Matthew 19:9

Will Dilbeck will.dilbeck at gmail.com
Tue Feb 17 17:25:00 EST 2009


Harold,

Thanks for your response. However, I did not say "I can't see anyway how
'not for fornication' could *imply *'except for fornication.'" I said, "I
cannot see in any way how MH EPI PORNEIA could be *translated* as 'except
for fornication'. It seems to me the translaters went above mere translation
when they introduced an implication into the clause. I recoginize that this
happens a lot in translation.

Thanks again,
Will

On Tue, Feb 17, 2009 at 4:14 PM, Harold Holmyard
<hholmyard3 at earthlink.net>wrote:

> Will,
>  >
> > I realize that this is a highly controversial issue, thus I wish to
> preface
> > this email by saying that my question is of a strictly grammatical
> nature.
> >
> > My question is this, why do most (if not all) English versions translate
> the
> > "exception clause" of Matthew 19:9 as "except for fornication"?
> >
> > In other words, I cannot see in any way how MH EPI PORNEIA could be
> > translated as "except for fornication". In Matthew 5:32, the clause
> PAREKTOS
> > LOGOU PORNEIAS can certainly be translated as "except for the reason of
> > unchasity" (NASB). But as far as I can tell, this is not equivelant to
> the
> > clause in Matthew 19:9.
> >
> > I have done quite a bit of research as to this question and I have yet to
> > find ONE commentary that addresses this grammatical question. I have also
> > read a paper concerning Erasmus' addition to his 1st edition of his
> > Greek-Latin New Testament (he added EI to the above stated clause of
> Matthew
> > 19:9, thus making it read EI MH EPI PORNEIA or "except for fornication").
> > This seems possible, but I again, this seems to be getting away from our
> > text as we have it.
> >
>
> HH: You can't see "in any way" how "not for fornication" could imply
> "except for fornication." Just put the phrase in the context and try to
> get a meaning out of it. The thought that clearly comes to mind is
> "except.":
>
> And I tell you, whoever divorces his wife--not  for sexual
> immorality--and marries another, commits adultery."
>
> "Not for sexual immorality" gives the one reason for divorce that would
> not lead to Jesus' conclusion. So it is an exception.
>
> Yours,
> Harold Holmyard
>
>
>
>
>
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