[B-Greek] Rom 4:1

Iver Larsen iver_larsen at sil.org
Mon Jul 20 13:21:45 EDT 2009


While reading N.T. Wright I came to his peculiar understanding of Rom 4:1.

The text is:

Τί οὖν ἐροῦμεν εὑρηκέναι Ἀβραὰμ τὸν προπάτορα ἡμῶν κατὰ σάρκα;
TI OUN EROUMEN hEURHKENAI ABRAAM TON PROPATORA hHMWN KATA SARKA?

He says that the following translation "works extremely well with the Greek":
"What then shall we say? Have we found Abraham to be our forefather according to
the flesh?"

Can anyone explain to me how he can suggest "we" as implicit subject for the
perfect infinitive? I assume that Wright is not a member of b-Greek, but maybe
some one else has accepted his exegesis and can defend it?

How can he cut the sentence into two with an indicative form of "found" when the
infinitive depends on EIPON? And how does that work extremely well with the
Greek?

Thanks,

Iver Larsen




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