[B-Greek] John 6:45

Carl Conrad cwconrad2 at mac.com
Tue Sep 22 14:13:36 EDT 2009


On Sep 22, 2009, at 1:49 PM, Gordon Slocum wrote:

> Forwarded for: Gordon Slocum <edifier.of.truth at gmail.com>
> Date: September 22, 2009 1:35:26 PM EDT
> To: B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: John 6:45
>
> ἔστιν γεγραμμένον ἐν τοῖς
> προφήταις· καὶ ἔσονται πάντες
> διδακτοὶ θεοῦ·
> πᾶς ὁ ἀκούσας παρὰ τοῦ πατρὸς καὶ
> μαθὼν ἔρχεται πρὸς ἐμέ.
> [ESTIN GEGRAMMENON EN TOIS PROFHTAIS· KAI ESONTAI PANTES DIDAKTOI
> QEOU·
> PAS hO AKOUSAS PARA TOU PATROS KAI MAQWN ERCETAI PROS EME.]
>
> (KJV) It is written in the prophets, And they shall be all taught of
> God. Every man therefore that hath heard, and hath learned of the
> Father, cometh unto me.
> 1)	 The ho can either be a definite article or a relative pronoun on
> its own as I understand it

No; hO can only be the article (the relative pronoun ordinarily has a  
grave accent); here hO with the aorist nominative participles  
constitutes a substantival clause which functions as the subject of  
ERCETAI PROS EME.

> 2)	Pas ho is singular and esontai is plural

Yes, but they are in different clauses.

> 3)	The prophecy is addressing Israel as the whole, all of them, my   
> understanding
> 4)	Is it correct to conclude that pas ho is only some of the  
> esontai  pantes

I think you're trying to read the text as if it were a syllogism. My  
view is rather that the second clause points to the coming of "anyone  
who has heard and learaned from the Father" as a fulfillment of a  
prophecy: this is how that teaching takes place. The PAS of PAS hO  
AKOUSAS ... KAI MAQWN is not delimiting but generalizing. It's not  
unlikely that PAS hO is intended to reflect the PANTES of the first  
clause.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)






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