[B-Greek] Matthew 22:34

Mark Lightman lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Thu Dec 9 11:32:40 EST 2010


<No, I don't think the notion of purpose would be expressed with EPI +  
accusative. I think that Iver is right and the lexicographical
evidence is sufficiently convincing.>

Hi, Carl,

You guys are probably right, but cf. 1 Cor 7:5, where there seems to be a hint 
of purpose.  That is the picture I have in my mind, the completion of a delayed 
event that is at least as telic as it is locative. 


 Mark L



FWSFOROS MARKOS




________________________________
From: cwconrad2 <cwconrad2 at mac.com>
To: Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com>
Cc: Biblical Greek' <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thu, December 9, 2010 3:46:08 AM
Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Matthew 22:34

On Dec 09, 2010, at 01:03 AM, Oun Kwon <kwonbbl at gmail.com> wrote:

> On Wed, Dec 8, 2010 at 10:50 PM, Iver Larsen <iver_larsen at sil.org> wrote:
> >
>
> >>
> >> Matthew 22:34 (NA27)
> >> 34Οἱ δὲ Φαρισαῖοι ἀκούσαντες ὅτι ἐφίμωσεν τοὺς Σαδδουκαίους συνήχθησαν ἐπὶ 
>τὸ
> >> αὐτό,
> >>
> >> 34 hOI DE FARISAIOI AKOUSANTES hOTI EFIMWSEN TOUS SADDOUKAIOUS SUNXQHSAN EPI 
>TO
> >> AUTO.
> >>
>
> >
> > It refers to a place, they gather in the same place, i.e. together. It is an 
>idiom.
> >
> > of place: at the same place, together (En 100:2; Jos., Bell. 2, 346; s. 
>συνέρχομαι 1a) Mt 22:34; 1 Cor 11:20; 14:23; B 4:10; IEph 5:3; εἶναι ἐπὶ τὸ αὐ. 
>(TestNapht 6:6) Lk 17:35; Ac 1:15; 2:1. προστιθέναι ἐπὶ τὸ αὐ add to the total 
>Ac 2:47 (see M-M.). κατὰ τὸ αυ. of pers. being together as a body in each 
>other’s company, together (PEleph 1, 5 εἶναι δὲ ἡμᾶς κατὰ ταὐτό) and also with 
>ref. to simultaneous presence at the same time (Aelian, VH 14, 8 δύο εἰκόνας 
>εἰργάσατο Πολύκλειτος κατὰ τ. αὐ.; 3 Km 3:18)
> >
> > Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., & Bauer, W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the 
>New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed.) (153). Chicago: 
>University of Chicago Press.
> >
> > Iver Larsen
> > ---
>
>
> What about 'for the same purpose'?

No, I don't think the notion of purpose would be expressed with EPI + 
accusative. I think that Iver is right and the lexicographical
evidence is sufficiently convincing.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (ret)

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