[B-Greek] Genesis 1:1 and Revelation 3:14
Mark Lightman
lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Thu Oct 7 20:01:02 EDT 2010
Michael wanted to know:
<Strictly grammatically speaking, could one come to the
conclusion that Revelation 3:14, in which it refers to the
Messiah as H ARCH THS KTISEWS TOU QEOU
(ἡ ἀρχὴ τῆς κτίσεως τοῦ θεοῦ), is an allusion to the
Messiah being the ARCH (ἀρχὴ) in the LXX of Genesis 1:1?>
Hi, Michael,
Yes. In the Talmud there are midrashim which use the B in Beresheit to argue
that God created the world through the agency of the Torah. The ARCH in Rev
3:14 is prima facie evidence that a similar (messianic) midrash existed in
Jewish-Christian circles in the 1st Century.
You are only weighing into theology if you argue that this is what the Genesis
text means. But to say that the author of Revelation may have thought it meant
this seems pretty kosher to me.
Mark L
Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
________________________________
From: Michael Baber <illuminatiaries at yahoo.com>
To: B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Thu, October 7, 2010 4:25:55 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Genesis 1:1 and Revelation 3:14
Strictly grammatically speaking, could one come to the
conclusion that Revelation 3:14, in which it refers to the
Messiah as H ARCH THS KTISEWS TOU QEOU
(ἡ ἀρχὴ τῆς κτίσεως τοῦ θεοῦ), is an allusion to the
Messiah being the ARCH (ἀρχὴ) in the LXX of Genesis 1:1?
If instead of "in the beginning," one thinks of Genesis 1:1 as
"with the beginning" or "by the beginning" (both acceptable
uses of the Hebrew preposition beit and Greek preposition EN),
could it be that John was alluding to Genesis 1:1? God created
the heavens and the earth "by the beginning" OR "with the beginning," and the
Messiah
is "the beginning of God's creation," (not created, but the "prime mover").
If I have strayed into theology, rather than grammar, please delete
this thread. I just wanted to have the opinions of the many scholars
on here whether it would be a proper exegesis (or, shall I say, permissible).
Thank you.
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