[B-Greek] Genesis 1:1 and Revelation 3:14

Bryant J. Williams III bjwvmw at com-pair.net
Fri Oct 8 01:24:28 EDT 2010


Dear Michael,

I do not think that Genesis 1:1 LXX and Genesis 1:1 MT would allow for what you
are asking (considering the context of Genesis 1) in connection with Revelation
3:14. Maybe Ken Penner or Albert Pietersma could answer this more fully.

Strictly speaking you are more than likely looking at Isaiah 65:15-16 standing
behind "The Amen, the Faithful and True," and "the beginning of the creation of
God." The notion of God and of Israel as "faithful witness" to the new creation
Isaiah 43:10-12 forms the background for "witness." This Isaiah 65:5-16 allusion
is used to indicate that Christ is the divine "Amen, the faithful and true
witness" to his own resurrection as "the beginning of the new creation of God,"
in inaugurated fulfillment of the Isaianic new-creation prophecies (See Beale
1996). Isaiah 43:10-12 underscores Jesus as fulfilling the prophesied role of
the true and faithful Israel.

See Beale and Carson, Commentary on the New Testament Use of the Old Testament,
"Revelation," co-authored by G. K. Beale and Sean M. McDonough, pp. 1097-1098.

En Xristwi,

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Michael Baber" <illuminatiaries at yahoo.com>
To: <B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, October 07, 2010 3:25 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] Genesis 1:1 and Revelation 3:14


>
>
>
>
>
>
> Strictly grammatically speaking, could one come to the
> conclusion that Revelation 3:14, in which it refers to the
> Messiah as H ARCH THS KTISEWS TOU QEOU
> (ἡ ἀρχὴ τῆς κτίσεως τοῦ θεοῦ), is an allusion to the
> Messiah being the ARCH (ἀρχὴ) in the LXX of Genesis 1:1?
>
> If instead of "in the beginning," one thinks of Genesis 1:1 as
> "with the beginning" or "by the beginning" (both acceptable
> uses of the Hebrew preposition beit and Greek preposition EN),
> could it be that John was alluding to Genesis 1:1? God created
> the heavens and the earth "by the beginning" OR "with the beginning," and the
Messiah
> is "the beginning of God's creation," (not created, but the "prime mover").
>
> If I have strayed into theology, rather than grammar, please delete
> this thread. I just wanted to have the opinions of the many scholars
> on here whether it would be a proper exegesis (or, shall I say, permissible).
>
> Thank you.
>
>
>
>
> ---
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