[B-Greek] Rm 6:8 any ellipsis?

Eric Inman eric-inman at comcast.net
Sat Sep 18 06:16:46 EDT 2010


I don't take it the way NET does. I view hO APOQANWN in v. 7 as referring back to hO PALAIOS ANQRWPOS in v. 6. This would mean that death solves the problem of sin only when it's the particular form of death being discussed here. On the other hand I believe he's also drawing from the general background semantics of death as he formulates these concepts and arguments, but I don't that it's to the extent that v. 7 is quoting a general axiom about death and sin.

Eric Inman

-----Original Message-----
From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org] On Behalf Of Oun Kwon
Sent: Friday, September 17, 2010 11:25 PM
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Subject: [B-Greek] Rm 6:8 any ellipsis?

First let me copy here

Rm 6:6	
τοῦτο γινώσκοντες,
ὅτι ὁ παλαιὸς ἡμῶν ἄνθρωπος συνεσταυρώθη, ἵνα καταργηθῇ τὸ σῶμα τῆς ἁμαρτίας, τοῦ μηκέτι δουλεύειν ἡμᾶς τῇ ἁμαρτίᾳ:
Rm 6:7	
ὁ γὰρ ἀποθανὼν δεδικαίωται ἀπὸ τῆς ἁμαρτίας.
Rm 6:8	
Εἰ δὲ ἀπεθάνομεν σὺν Χριστῷ,
πιστεύομεν ὅτι καὶ συζήσομεν αὐτῷ:

My concern is v. 7

hO GAR APOQANWN DEDIKAIWTAI APO THS hAMARTIAS.

1. Is this statement a general axiom? Is it more likely something of a parenthetical comment in Paul's argument as NET fn says?
2. What is the sense of DIKAIOW APO THS hAMARTIAS? (e.g. Does death solve the problem of sin of a person?) 3. Or, should I see something of an ellipsis here, to read the verse as "hO GAR APOQANWN SUN CRISTWi, ~ " which is repeated in the next verse?

Thank you so much,

Oun Kwon.
---
B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek B-Greek mailing list B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek


More information about the B-Greek mailing list