[B-Greek] sigma at end of "porneia(s)" ?
John Benson
johncbenson at gmail.com
Thu Sep 30 16:51:18 EDT 2010
A struggling student's questions:
My Dictionary of New Testament Terms has a good explication of "porneia."
However the text in my interlinear bible with which I am working says
"porneias" with the ending sigma added. I am unsure if I can simply use the
definitions of porneia as if the s wasn't there.
What difference does it make? Why are there two forms?
Thanks for the kind attention.
John Benson
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