[B-Greek] sigma at end of "porneia(s)" ?

John Benson johncbenson at gmail.com
Thu Sep 30 16:51:18 EDT 2010


A struggling student's questions:

My Dictionary of New Testament Terms has a good explication of "porneia."
However the text in my interlinear bible with which I am working says
"porneias" with the ending sigma added. I am unsure if I can simply use the
definitions of porneia as if the s wasn't there.

What difference does it make? Why are there two forms?

Thanks for the kind attention.

John Benson



More information about the B-Greek mailing list