[B-Greek] sigma at end of "porneia(s)" ?
Barry H.
nebarry at verizon.net
Thu Sep 30 17:09:28 EDT 2010
----- Original Message -----
From: "John Benson" <johncbenson at gmail.com>
To: <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, September 30, 2010 4:51 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] sigma at end of "porneia(s)" ?
>A struggling student's questions:
>
> My Dictionary of New Testament Terms has a good explication of "porneia."
> However the text in my interlinear bible with which I am working says
> "porneias" with the ending sigma added. I am unsure if I can simply use
> the
> definitions of porneia as if the s wasn't there.
>
> What difference does it make? Why are there two forms?
>
> Thanks for the kind attention.
I take it that you have not studied Greek at all? Greek is an inflected
language, which means that endings on the nouns (and verbs, and pronouns,
and adjectives) tend to change according to the grammatical function of the
noun in the sentence. This does not change the lexical definition of the
word, only its usage in the sentence. While you didn't list a verse, the
"s" (sigma) at the end of the word is most likely the genitive singular
ending (though theoretically it could be the accusative plural). The
genitive can be a bit tricky, but mostly its used for constructions which in
English translate with the word "of," "of sexual immorality..." The
accusative could be used of the direct object, the object of certain
prepositions...
So your definition is ok, but please, ditch the interlinear and start
learning Greek. You won't regret it...
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, semper melius Latine sonat...
Classics and Bible Instructor, TAA
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
(2010 Savatori Excellence in Education Winner)
V-P of Academic Affairs, TNARS
bhofstetter at tnars.net
http://www.tnars.net
http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
http://mysite.verizon.net/nebarry
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