[B-Greek] Ephesians 2:8

Blue Meeksbay bluemeeksbay at yahoo.com
Thu Apr 21 12:59:54 EDT 2011


Eph. 2:8-9 THi GAR CARITI ESTE SESWiSMENOI DIA PISTEWS  KAI TOUTO  OUK EX 
hUMWN,  QEOU TO DWRON  OUK EX ERGWN,  hINA MH TIS KAUCHSHTAI.
 
Eph. 5:4 KAI AISCROTHS, KAI MWROLOGIA, H EUTRAPELIA, TA OUK ANHKONTA ALLA MALLON 
EUCARISTIA. (BYZ)
 
Eph. 5:4 KAI AISCROTHS KAI MWROLOGIA H EUTRAPELIA, hA OUK ANHKEN, ALLA MALLON 
EUCARISTIA  (NA27)
 
I think we can find the author of Ephesians using a similar construction a few 
chapters later in the epistle in chapter 5:4. The article and/or the pronoun are 
neuter, whereas the forgoing is feminine. 

 
In addition, back to 2:8, if verse 9 had been made a part of verse 8, perhaps, 
it might have helped clarify the flow of the text. I know it should not make a 
difference because a verse should always be read within the greater context, but 
for whatever reason, sometimes (and I will include myself) we are guilty of 
trying to understand one portion of the Greek as if it is an island in the midst 
of a great ocean containing the rest of the Greek text.
 
OUK EX ERGWN, in my mind, cannot be divorced from the forgoing. Whatever one 
decides is the referent of TOUTO one must realize that OUK EX ERGWN helps 
explain it.  If one believes it is grace than one must explain how one could 
ever think that grace is bestowed because of works. That seems like an oxymoron 
to me, but that is just my opinion. It seems by the use of a negative, the 
writer is indicating some might believe the positive, and thus he is trying to 
negate someone from believing such a thing. 

 
In other words, if grace is the referent, then he is stating, (for those who 
might believe grace can be bestowed for our good works) – it cannot be! Or if 
one believes faith is the referent, then he is stating, (for those who might 
believe that faith is earned by our good works) – it cannot be! IMO neither fits 
the context, especially if we believe Paul was the writer of the book. But that 
is just my opinion. Therefore, it seems the only logical conclusion, when we 
take the greater context, is what Michael Aubrey stated in his post 

 
<TOUTO refers to the entire event of salvation by grace through faith.>
 
As for Eric’s question and the reason for the neuter in Matt. 26:26, perhaps it 
is because the bread was stated to be broken and the neuter TOUTO was used 
because of an implied piece (KLASMA) of bread,  which, of course, is neuter. 

 
Compare its use in Luke 9:17.
 
KAI  EFAGON  KAI  ECORTASQHSAN  PANTES, KAI HRQH TO PERISSEUSAN AUTOIS  
KLASMATWN  KOFINOI DWDEKA
 
I do not know, just a thought.
 
 
Cordially,
 
Blue Harris


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