[B-Greek] Double article

Joe Ripley joseph.ripley at ntlworld.com
Tue Feb 22 06:09:20 EST 2011


Instead of "standard way to state such in Greek" would it not be more accurate to say that it is the standard way to translate this into English?

on the web I found this:
In the Koine Greek of the New Testament, the term "the son of man" is invariably "ὁ υἱὸς τοὺ ἀνθρώπου", which might be rendered more literally "the son of the human being"; however, due to conventions of interpreting the definite article in Greek, "the son of man" most scholars believe is a better translation.

Only Jesus and Stephen use the article for  MAN. I have not been able to find any case of this in the LXX or in the rest of the NT. Why is the article not taken seriously here? 

As for the "read more and you'll see" putdown - read what and where are my response?

Joe Ripley

  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: George F Somsel 
  To: Joe Ripley ; b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org 
  Sent: Sunday, February 20, 2011 12:48 AM
  Subject: Re: [B-Greek] Double article


  I think you're trying to rely on your English language experience too much.  This is a standard way to state such in Greek.  Read more and you'll see.

   
  george
  gfsomsel 



  … search for truth, hear truth, 
  learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
  defend the truth till death.



  - Jan Hus
  _________ 





------------------------------------------------------------------------------
  From: Joe Ripley <joseph.ripley at ntlworld.com>
  To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
  Sent: Sat, February 19, 2011 5:14:22 PM
  Subject: [B-Greek] Double article

  Dear List - Does anyone have any thoughts about the use of the double article in hO hUIOS TOU ANQRWPOU which Jesus used of himself many times?  He even asked the newly healed man who had been born blind, if he knew who "The son of the man is". Stephen used it too when he saw Jesus at the right side of God.
  In Daniel 7, Revelation 14 and Ezekiel 37 no definite article is used for "son of man".
  Could it be some Jewish 'code speak' for Messiah, "The man" being perhaps understood to be David or maybe Adam?

  Joe Ripley
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