[B-Greek] SATAN in LXX

Jeff Smelser jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net
Fri Jan 7 19:23:33 EST 2011


In the LXX, why is it that "SATAN," merely a transliteration of the 
Hebrew, is used in 3 Kings (=1 Kings) 11:14 (and also in vs. 23 in C. 
Alexandrinus) where the context simply refers to enemies or adversaries? 
I think the same question can perhaps be asked of Sir. 21:27, where I 
don't see a compelling reason to suppose the text has the devil in view. 
Why wasn't the Hebrew translated into Greek in these passages?

3 Ki. 11:14    Καὶ ἤγειρεν κύριος σαταν τῷ Σαλωμων
KAI HGEIREN KURIOS SATAN TWi SALWMWN
And the Lord raised adversaries against Solomon

καὶ ἦσαν σαταν τῷ Ισραηλ πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας Σαλωμων
KAI HSAN SATAN TWi ISRAEL PASAS TAS hHMERAS SALWMWN
and they were adversaries against Israel all the days of Solomon

Sir. 21:27
ἐν τῷ καταρᾶσθαι ἀσεβῆ τὸν σατανᾶν αὐτὸς καταρᾶται τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν.
EN TWi KATARASQAI ASEBH TON SATANAN AUTOS KATARATAI THN hEAUTOU YUCHN.
An ungodly man, in cursing the adversary, curses his own soul

The fact that the word wasn't translated into Greek would seemingly 
suggest the translators had the devil in view. But this seems strange 
especially given that when the Devil is clearly in view, the Hebrew for 
adversary is translated by the Greek DIABOLOS.

The only thing I can imagine is that the translators saw Solomon's 
adversaries as acting at the behest of the devil, and that by that time, 
for them the Greek transliteration SATAN had come to be a name for the 
devil. But if that's the explanation, why is it only used in 1 Ki. 11 
and Sir. 21? Why not in passages much more obviously referring to the 
devil, e.g. Job 1, Zech 3?  And furthermore, the context in 3 Ki. 11:14 
(LXX) requires that we understand indeclinable SATANto be plural in both 
instances. In the first part of the verse in the LXX, two adversaries 
are mentioned, and in the last part of the verse, it says HSAN SATAN. So 
given that the LXX points to plural SATAN, it seems difficult to argue 
that the translators had the Devil (singular) in view.

So then again, why was the word merely transliterated?

Jeff Smelser



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