[B-Greek] SATAN in LXX
Jeff Smelser
jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net
Fri Jan 7 19:23:33 EST 2011
In the LXX, why is it that "SATAN," merely a transliteration of the
Hebrew, is used in 3 Kings (=1 Kings) 11:14 (and also in vs. 23 in C.
Alexandrinus) where the context simply refers to enemies or adversaries?
I think the same question can perhaps be asked of Sir. 21:27, where I
don't see a compelling reason to suppose the text has the devil in view.
Why wasn't the Hebrew translated into Greek in these passages?
3 Ki. 11:14 Καὶ ἤγειρεν κύριος σαταν τῷ Σαλωμων
KAI HGEIREN KURIOS SATAN TWi SALWMWN
And the Lord raised adversaries against Solomon
καὶ ἦσαν σαταν τῷ Ισραηλ πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας Σαλωμων
KAI HSAN SATAN TWi ISRAEL PASAS TAS hHMERAS SALWMWN
and they were adversaries against Israel all the days of Solomon
Sir. 21:27
ἐν τῷ καταρᾶσθαι ἀσεβῆ τὸν σατανᾶν αὐτὸς καταρᾶται τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν.
EN TWi KATARASQAI ASEBH TON SATANAN AUTOS KATARATAI THN hEAUTOU YUCHN.
An ungodly man, in cursing the adversary, curses his own soul
The fact that the word wasn't translated into Greek would seemingly
suggest the translators had the devil in view. But this seems strange
especially given that when the Devil is clearly in view, the Hebrew for
adversary is translated by the Greek DIABOLOS.
The only thing I can imagine is that the translators saw Solomon's
adversaries as acting at the behest of the devil, and that by that time,
for them the Greek transliteration SATAN had come to be a name for the
devil. But if that's the explanation, why is it only used in 1 Ki. 11
and Sir. 21? Why not in passages much more obviously referring to the
devil, e.g. Job 1, Zech 3? And furthermore, the context in 3 Ki. 11:14
(LXX) requires that we understand indeclinable SATANto be plural in both
instances. In the first part of the verse in the LXX, two adversaries
are mentioned, and in the last part of the verse, it says HSAN SATAN. So
given that the LXX points to plural SATAN, it seems difficult to argue
that the translators had the Devil (singular) in view.
So then again, why was the word merely transliterated?
Jeff Smelser
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