[B-Greek] SATAN in LXX

George F Somsel gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Jan 7 21:45:46 EST 2011


After looking over the material, I think that σαταν SATAN is used in those 
instances is precisely because "the Devil" was not considered.  In what is 
probably the most famous instance of the appearance of הַשָּׂטָן in the OT, 
namely Job 1.6, it is not translated by σαταν SATAN, but by διάβολος 
DIABOLOS, which seems to be an established term in Greek which would correspond 
in some ways to the Hebrew usage as the slanderer or accuser.  Had the 
translator wished to connect Solomon's adversaries with the Devil, he would most 
likely have used διάβολος DIABOLOS. 


 george
gfsomsel 


… search for truth, hear truth, 
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth, 
defend the truth till death.


- Jan Hus
_________ 




________________________________
From: Jeff Smelser <jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, January 7, 2011 5:23:33 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] SATAN in LXX

In the LXX, why is it that "SATAN," merely a transliteration of the Hebrew, is 
used in 3 Kings (=1 Kings) 11:14 (and also in vs. 23 in C. Alexandrinus) where 
the context simply refers to enemies or adversaries? I think the same question 
can perhaps be asked of Sir. 21:27, where I don't see a compelling reason to 
suppose the text has the devil in view. Why wasn't the Hebrew translated into 
Greek in these passages?

3 Ki. 11:14    Καὶ ἤγειρεν κύριος σαταν τῷ Σαλωμων
KAI HGEIREN KURIOS SATAN TWi SALWMWN
And the Lord raised adversaries against Solomon

καὶ ἦσαν σαταν τῷ Ισραηλ πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας Σαλωμων
KAI HSAN SATAN TWi ISRAEL PASAS TAS hHMERAS SALWMWN
and they were adversaries against Israel all the days of Solomon

Sir. 21:27
ἐν τῷ καταρᾶσθαι ἀσεβῆ τὸν σατανᾶν αὐτὸς καταρᾶται τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν.
EN TWi KATARASQAI ASEBH TON SATANAN AUTOS KATARATAI THN hEAUTOU YUCHN.
An ungodly man, in cursing the adversary, curses his own soul

The fact that the word wasn't translated into Greek would seemingly suggest the 
translators had the devil in view. But this seems strange especially given that 
when the Devil is clearly in view, the Hebrew for adversary is translated by the 
Greek DIABOLOS.

The only thing I can imagine is that the translators saw Solomon's adversaries 
as acting at the behest of the devil, and that by that time, for them the Greek 
transliteration SATAN had come to be a name for the devil. But if that's the 
explanation, why is it only used in 1 Ki. 11 and Sir. 21? Why not in passages 
much more obviously referring to the devil, e.g. Job 1, Zech 3?  And 
furthermore, the context in 3 Ki. 11:14 (LXX) requires that we understand 
indeclinable SATANto be plural in both instances. In the first part of the verse 
in the LXX, two adversaries are mentioned, and in the last part of the verse, it 
says HSAN SATAN. So given that the LXX points to plural SATAN, it seems 
difficult to argue that the translators had the Devil (singular) in view.

So then again, why was the word merely transliterated?

Jeff Smelser
---
B-Greek home page: http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek
B-Greek mailing list
B-Greek at lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-greek



      


More information about the B-Greek mailing list