[B-Greek] SATAN in LXX
George F Somsel
gfsomsel at yahoo.com
Fri Jan 7 21:45:46 EST 2011
After looking over the material, I think that σαταν SATAN is used in those
instances is precisely because "the Devil" was not considered. In what is
probably the most famous instance of the appearance of הַשָּׂטָן in the OT,
namely Job 1.6, it is not translated by σαταν SATAN, but by διάβολος
DIABOLOS, which seems to be an established term in Greek which would correspond
in some ways to the Hebrew usage as the slanderer or accuser. Had the
translator wished to connect Solomon's adversaries with the Devil, he would most
likely have used διάβολος DIABOLOS.
george
gfsomsel
… search for truth, hear truth,
learn truth, love truth, speak the truth, hold the truth,
defend the truth till death.
- Jan Hus
_________
________________________________
From: Jeff Smelser <jeffsmelser at ntgreek.net>
To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
Sent: Fri, January 7, 2011 5:23:33 PM
Subject: [B-Greek] SATAN in LXX
In the LXX, why is it that "SATAN," merely a transliteration of the Hebrew, is
used in 3 Kings (=1 Kings) 11:14 (and also in vs. 23 in C. Alexandrinus) where
the context simply refers to enemies or adversaries? I think the same question
can perhaps be asked of Sir. 21:27, where I don't see a compelling reason to
suppose the text has the devil in view. Why wasn't the Hebrew translated into
Greek in these passages?
3 Ki. 11:14 Καὶ ἤγειρεν κύριος σαταν τῷ Σαλωμων
KAI HGEIREN KURIOS SATAN TWi SALWMWN
And the Lord raised adversaries against Solomon
καὶ ἦσαν σαταν τῷ Ισραηλ πάσας τὰς ἡμέρας Σαλωμων
KAI HSAN SATAN TWi ISRAEL PASAS TAS hHMERAS SALWMWN
and they were adversaries against Israel all the days of Solomon
Sir. 21:27
ἐν τῷ καταρᾶσθαι ἀσεβῆ τὸν σατανᾶν αὐτὸς καταρᾶται τὴν ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν.
EN TWi KATARASQAI ASEBH TON SATANAN AUTOS KATARATAI THN hEAUTOU YUCHN.
An ungodly man, in cursing the adversary, curses his own soul
The fact that the word wasn't translated into Greek would seemingly suggest the
translators had the devil in view. But this seems strange especially given that
when the Devil is clearly in view, the Hebrew for adversary is translated by the
Greek DIABOLOS.
The only thing I can imagine is that the translators saw Solomon's adversaries
as acting at the behest of the devil, and that by that time, for them the Greek
transliteration SATAN had come to be a name for the devil. But if that's the
explanation, why is it only used in 1 Ki. 11 and Sir. 21? Why not in passages
much more obviously referring to the devil, e.g. Job 1, Zech 3? And
furthermore, the context in 3 Ki. 11:14 (LXX) requires that we understand
indeclinable SATANto be plural in both instances. In the first part of the verse
in the LXX, two adversaries are mentioned, and in the last part of the verse, it
says HSAN SATAN. So given that the LXX points to plural SATAN, it seems
difficult to argue that the translators had the Devil (singular) in view.
So then again, why was the word merely transliterated?
Jeff Smelser
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