[B-Greek] SATAN in LXX

Albert Pietersma albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Mon Jan 10 14:54:59 EST 2011


Better not treat it as an offense of the eye, though. :-)
Interesting, perhaps, that θ' and Procop substitute the verb used in  
Zech 3:1.
Al
On Jan 10, 2011, at 2:42 PM, Ken Penner wrote:

> That was my error of the eye; the reference should be Num 22.22  
> rather than Lev.
> In the second apparatus we find
> ἐνδιαβάλλειν (αὐτόν)] κατάγνωστον  
> αὐτὸν ποιῆσαι 130-321′; τὸ ἑβρ' α'  
> σαταν θ' ἀντικεῖσθαι Procop 864
>
> Ken
>
> Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
> Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic vocabulary memorization software:
> http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/flash/
> kpenner at stfx.ca
>
>
>
>
> -----Original Message-----
> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org 
> ] On Behalf Of Albert Pietersma
> Sent: Monday, January 10, 2011 11:53 AM
> To: Allen Rhoades
> Cc: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [B-Greek] SATAN in LXX
>
> As for Lev 19:19 the second critical apparatus of Göttingen contains
> the following evidence:
> ALLOS KWLUMA SATAN (SATANH M; ASATANH 416). The tradition is therefore
> categorized as non-LXX.
> In Lev 22:22 I see no evidence for SATAN in Göttingen or Rahlfs or
> Brooke-McLean. Thus it is unclear to me where that "evidence" comes
> from.
> Moreover, what you cite about SATAN from CATTS is rather incomplete
> and incorrect, if for no other reason than that it omits SATAN as a
> verb. It also gives the false impression that SATAN as a noun is
> uniformly translated by DIABOLOS. Furthermore, it fails to distinguish
> between arthrous and anarthrous instances. Lastly, in neither of the
> two Esther passages does DIABOLOS translate SATAN.
> Al
> On Jan 9, 2011, at 9:58 PM, Allen Rhoades wrote:
>
>>
>> When I look at the CCAT entire Septuagint  I see "satan"  used only
>> twice, both  in the 3 Reigns  11:14; the other twenty two times were
>> "diabolos"
>>
>> I understand that the CCAT is not the apparatus of the Göttingen
>> Septuagint  but what are the two  Leviticus references for Satan?
>>
>>
>> *Sept* Reference 	Accented 	AccentedLatin 	Parsing1 	Parsing2 	Lemma
>> 1/3Kgs 11:14 	σαταν 	SATAN 	N 	ASM 	SATAN
>> 1/3Kgs 11:14 	σαταν 	SATAN 	N 	NSM 	SATAN
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> *Sept* Reference 	Accented 	AccentedLatin 	Parsing1 	Parsing2 	Lemma
>> 1Chr 21:1 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Esth 7:4 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Esth 8:1 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 1:6 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 1:7 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 1:7 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 1:9 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 1:12 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 1:12 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:1 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:2 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:2 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:3 	διάβολον 	DIA/BOLON 	N2 	ASM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:4 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:6 	διαβόλῳ 	DIABO/LW| 	N2 	DSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Job 2:7 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Ps 108:6 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Zech 3:1 	διαβολος 	DIA/BOLOS 	N2 	NSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Zech 3:2 	διάβολον 	DIA/BOLON 	N2 	ASM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> Zech 3:2 	διάβολε 	DIA/BOLE 	N2 	VSM 	DIA/BOLOS
>> 1Mac 1:36 	διάβολον 	DIA/BOLON 	N2 	ASM 	DIA/BOLOS
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> On 1/8/2011 8:33 AM, Ken Penner wrote:
>>> Other verses that may be of interest for this topic, from the
>>> apparatus of the Göttingen Septuagint:
>>>
>>> Lev. 19.19 M has SATAN.
>>> Lev. 22.22.
>>> Zach. 3.1 in manuscript 86 has KAI hO SATAN, and SyH has SATAN.
>>> Iob 1.6a Aquila has SATAN instead of DIABOLOS.
>>> Iob 2.3 the SyH, Alexandrinus, group 1 of the Lucianic manuscripts,
>>> and Chrysostom add PROS TON SATANAN.
>>> Iob 40.16a SATAN in some patristic witnesses.
>>>
>>> As Al said, it is of interest that the translator transcribes his
>>> text exactly. But I do think that SATAN in 3 Reigns is significant
>>> precisely BECAUSE the translator "withholds his understanding of
>>> the Hebrew word." The word would have stood out to a Greek reader
>>> because it was foreign. How often does this translator transcribe
>>> rather than translate?
>>>
>>> Ken
>>>
>>>
>>> Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
>>> Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic vocabulary memorization software:
>>> http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/flash/
>>> kpenner at stfx.ca
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> -----Original Message-----
>>> From: b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org [mailto:b-greek-bounces at lists.ibiblio.org
>>> ] On Behalf Of Jeff Smelser
>>> Sent: Friday, January 07, 2011 8:24 PM
>>> To: b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org
>>> Subject: [B-Greek] SATAN in LXX
>>>
>>> In the LXX, why is it that "SATAN," merely a transliteration of the
>>> Hebrew, is used in 3 Kings (=1 Kings) 11:14 (and also in vs. 23 in  
>>> C.
>>> Alexandrinus) where the context simply refers to enemies or
>>> adversaries?
>>> I think the same question can perhaps be asked of Sir. 21:27,  
>>> where I
>>> don't see a compelling reason to suppose the text has the devil in
>>> view.
>>> Why wasn't the Hebrew translated into Greek in these passages?
>>>
>>> 3 Ki. 11:14    Καὶ ἤγειρεν κύριος σαταν
>>> τῷ Σαλωμων
>>> KAI HGEIREN KURIOS SATAN TWi SALWMWN
>>> And the Lord raised adversaries against Solomon
>>>
>>> καὶ ἦσαν σαταν τῷ Ισραηλ πάσας τὰς
>>> ἡμέρας Σαλωμων
>>> KAI HSAN SATAN TWi ISRAEL PASAS TAS hHMERAS SALWMWN
>>> and they were adversaries against Israel all the days of Solomon
>>>
>>> Sir. 21:27
>>> ἐν τῷ καταρᾶσθαι ἀσεβῆ τὸν
>>> σατανᾶν αὐτὸς καταρᾶται τὴν
>>> ἑαυτοῦ ψυχήν.
>>> EN TWi KATARASQAI ASEBH TON SATANAN AUTOS KATARATAI THN hEAUTOU
>>> YUCHN.
>>> An ungodly man, in cursing the adversary, curses his own soul
>>>
>>> The fact that the word wasn't translated into Greek would seemingly
>>> suggest the translators had the devil in view. But this seems  
>>> strange
>>> especially given that when the Devil is clearly in view, the Hebrew
>>> for
>>> adversary is translated by the Greek DIABOLOS.
>>>
>>> The only thing I can imagine is that the translators saw Solomon's
>>> adversaries as acting at the behest of the devil, and that by that
>>> time,
>>> for them the Greek transliteration SATAN had come to be a name for
>>> the
>>> devil. But if that's the explanation, why is it only used in 1 Ki.  
>>> 11
>>> and Sir. 21? Why not in passages much more obviously referring to  
>>> the
>>> devil, e.g. Job 1, Zech 3?  And furthermore, the context in 3 Ki.
>>> 11:14
>>> (LXX) requires that we understand indeclinable SATANto be plural in
>>> both
>>> instances. In the first part of the verse in the LXX, two  
>>> adversaries
>>> are mentioned, and in the last part of the verse, it says HSAN
>>> SATAN. So
>>> given that the LXX points to plural SATAN, it seems difficult to
>>> argue
>>> that the translators had the Devil (singular) in view.
>>>
>>> So then again, why was the word merely transliterated?
>>>
>>> Jeff Smelser
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>>
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>
>> Albert Pietersma PhD
> 21 Cross Street,
> Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
> Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
> Homepage: http://www.chass.utoronto.ca/~pietersm
>
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—
Albert Pietersma PhD
21 Cross Street,
Weston ON Canada M9N 2B8
Email: albert.pietersma at sympatico.ca
Homepage: http://www.chass.utoronto.ca/~pietersm




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