[B-Greek] Too Many KAIs? Lk 23:51
Mark Lightman
lightmanmark at yahoo.com
Sat May 7 19:12:59 EDT 2011
Hi Richard,
Oscar Wilde said that monogamy is one marriage too many. I think we have one
KAI too many.
It could mean, "and he, as well as other people, was expecting this Kingdom, even this guy."
Your font looks great, by the way.
Mark L
Φωσφορος
FWSFOROS MARKOS
--- On Sat, 5/7/11, Richard Ghilardi <richardghilardi at att.net> wrote:
From: Richard Ghilardi <richardghilardi at att.net>
Subject: [B-Greek] Too Many KAIs? Lk 23:51
To: "B-Greek List" <b-greek at lists.ibiblio.org>
Date: Saturday, May 7, 2011, 3:40 PM
Hello Folks,
Lk 23:50-51 reads in NA27:
Καί ιδού ανήρ ονόματι Ιωσήφ βουλευτής ὑπάρχων [καί] ανήρ αγαθός καί
δίκαιος -- οὗτος ουκ ῆν συγκατατεθειμένος τῇ βουλῇ καί τῇ πράξει
αυτῶν -- από Ἁριμαθαίας πόλεως τῶν Ιουδαίων, ὅς προσεδέχετο τήν
βασιλείαν
τοῦ θεοῦ
KAI IDOY ANHR ONOMATI IWSHF BOYLEYTHS hYPARXWN [KAI] ANHR AGAQOS KAI DIKAIOS --
hOYTOS OYK HN SYGKATATEQEIMENOS THi BOYLHi KAI THi PRAKSEI AYTWN -- APO
hARIMAQAIAS POLEWS TWN IOYDAIWN, hOS PROSEDEXETO THN BASILEIAN TOY QEOY
The Byz differs at just 3 points: 1) omits bracketed [καί] [KAI], 2) smooth
breathing for Αριμαθαίας ARIMAQAIAS and 3) the final clause, which reads:
ὅς καί προσεδέχετο καί αυτός τήν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ
hOS KAI PROSEDEXETO KAI AYTOS THN BASILEIAN TOY QEOY.
I will focus on this clause. I cannot fathom exactly what it means because I
cannot construe both KAIs in the same clause. I suppose it could mean, "and who
himself was also awaiting the reign of God." But then, wouldn't the first KAI
have to be to the left of hOS? This looks like awkward Greek to me with one too
many KAIs
here. Indeed, it seems that this is a conflate reading compounded of
two other variants found in the NA27 apparatus:
ὅς καί προσεδέχετο...
hOS KAI PROSEDEXETO...
and
ὅς προσεδέχετο καί αυτός...
hOS PROSEDEXETO KAI AYTOS...
And all 3 readings are derived from Mk 15:43 and Mt 27:57. The single KAI is
easy to construe in the two readings above and the NA27 reading is perfectly
plain. Does that make the Byz reading the lex difficillima? Can a conflate
reading really be the lex difficillima? But more importantly, what does the
double KAI mean here? Is this good Greek? The last two questions are what I
would really like to see addressed here. The text critical questions are merely
setup and will disappear if the Byz reading can be construed.
Yours in His grace,
Richard Ghilardi
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