[B-Greek] Too Many KAIs? Lk 23:51

John Sanders john.franklin.sanders at gmail.com
Mon May 9 00:49:32 EDT 2011


I think the Greek is acceptable.  The first KAI can be replaced by DE.  It
sets up the sentence.  The second KAI is similiar, it can be replaced by DE,
setting up another sentence where ANHR represents ANHR ONOMATI IVSHF
BOULEYTHS hYPARXVN from the previous KAI.  The third KAI ties AGAQOS and
DIKAIOS together.

John Sanders
Suzhou, China



On Sun, May 8, 2011 at 5:40 AM, Richard Ghilardi <richardghilardi at att.net>wrote:

> Hello Folks,
>
> Lk 23:50-51 reads in NA27:
>
> Καί ιδού ανήρ ονόματι Ιωσήφ βουλευτής ὑπάρχων [καί] ανήρ αγαθός
> καί
> δίκαιος -- οὗτος ουκ ῆν συγκατατεθειμένος τῇ βουλῇ καί τῇ
> πράξει
> αυτῶν -- από Ἁριμαθαίας πόλεως τῶν Ιουδαίων, ὅς προσεδέχετο τήν
> βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ
> KAI IDOY ANHR ONOMATI IWSHF BOYLEYTHS hYPARXWN [KAI] ANHR AGAQOS KAI
> DIKAIOS --
> hOYTOS OYK HN SYGKATATEQEIMENOS THi BOYLHi KAI THi PRAKSEI AYTWN -- APO
> hARIMAQAIAS POLEWS TWN IOYDAIWN, hOS PROSEDEXETO THN BASILEIAN TOY QEOY
>
> The Byz differs at just 3 points: 1) omits bracketed [καί] [KAI], 2)
> smooth
> breathing for Αριμαθαίας ARIMAQAIAS and 3) the final clause, which reads:
> ὅς καί προσεδέχετο καί αυτός τήν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ
> hOS KAI PROSEDEXETO KAI AYTOS THN BASILEIAN TOY QEOY.
>
> I will focus on this clause. I cannot fathom exactly what it means because
> I
> cannot construe both KAIs in the same clause. I suppose it could mean, "and
> who
> himself was also awaiting the reign of God." But then, wouldn't the first
> KAI
> have to be to the left of hOS? This looks like awkward Greek to me with one
> too
> many KAIs here. Indeed, it seems that this is a conflate reading compounded
> of
> two other variants found in the NA27 apparatus:
>
> ὅς καί προσεδέχετο...
> hOS KAI PROSEDEXETO...
> and
> ὅς προσεδέχετο καί αυτός...
> hOS PROSEDEXETO KAI AYTOS...
>
> And all 3 readings are derived from Mk 15:43 and Mt 27:57. The single KAI
> is
> easy to construe in the two readings above and the NA27 reading is
> perfectly
> plain. Does that make the Byz reading the lex difficillima? Can a conflate
> reading really be the lex difficillima? But more importantly, what does the
> double KAI mean here? Is this good Greek? The last two questions are what I
> would really like to see addressed here. The text critical questions are
> merely
> setup and will disappear if the Byz reading can be construed.
>
> Yours in His grace,
> Richard Ghilardi
> ---
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>



-- 
John Sanders
Suzhou, China


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