[B-Greek] Too Many KAIs? Lk 23:51

Vasile Stancu stancu.c.vasile at gmail.com
Sun May 8 16:54:11 EDT 2011


To me, this text sounds quite fine and logical: the first KAI is putting 
the fact that IWSHF was waiting for the kingdom of God, in close 
relationship with the previous things said about him, i.e., council 
member... good and just... had not consented...: IWSHF... BOULEUTHS 
UPARXWN... AGAQOS... DIKAIOS... OUK HN... OS   «KAI»   PROSEDEXETO...; 
the second KAI must have the significance that his waiting for the 
kingdom of God was not a singular case: he himself, like others, was 
waiting for the kingdom of God.

Vasile Stancu


On 5/8/2011 12:40 AM, Richard Ghilardi wrote:
> Hello Folks,
>
> Lk 23:50-51 reads in NA27:
>
> Καί ιδού ανήρ ονόματι Ιωσήφ βουλευτής ὑπάρχων [καί] ανήρ αγαθός καί
> δίκαιος -- οὗτος ουκ ῆν συγκατατεθειμένος τῇ βουλῇ καί τῇ πράξει
> αυτῶν -- από Ἁριμαθαίας πόλεως τῶν Ιουδαίων, ὅς προσεδέχετο τήν
> βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ
> KAI IDOY ANHR ONOMATI IWSHF BOYLEYTHS hYPARXWN [KAI] ANHR AGAQOS KAI DIKAIOS --
> hOYTOS OYK HN SYGKATATEQEIMENOS THi BOYLHi KAI THi PRAKSEI AYTWN -- APO
> hARIMAQAIAS POLEWS TWN IOYDAIWN, hOS PROSEDEXETO THN BASILEIAN TOY QEOY
>
> The Byz differs at just 3 points: 1) omits bracketed [καί] [KAI], 2) smooth
> breathing for Αριμαθαίας ARIMAQAIAS and 3) the final clause, which reads:
> ὅς καί προσεδέχετο καί αυτός τήν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ
> hOS KAI PROSEDEXETO KAI AYTOS THN BASILEIAN TOY QEOY.
>
> I will focus on this clause. I cannot fathom exactly what it means because I
> cannot construe both KAIs in the same clause. I suppose it could mean, "and who
> himself was also awaiting the reign of God." But then, wouldn't the first KAI
> have to be to the left of hOS? This looks like awkward Greek to me with one too
> many KAIs here. Indeed, it seems that this is a conflate reading compounded of
> two other variants found in the NA27 apparatus:
>
> ὅς καί προσεδέχετο...
> hOS KAI PROSEDEXETO...
> and
> ὅς προσεδέχετο καί αυτός...
> hOS PROSEDEXETO KAI AYTOS...
>
> And all 3 readings are derived from Mk 15:43 and Mt 27:57. The single KAI is
> easy to construe in the two readings above and the NA27 reading is perfectly
> plain. Does that make the Byz reading the lex difficillima? Can a conflate
> reading really be the lex difficillima? But more importantly, what does the
> double KAI mean here? Is this good Greek? The last two questions are what I
> would really like to see addressed here. The text critical questions are merely
> setup and will disappear if the Byz reading can be construed.
>
> Yours in His grace,
> Richard Ghilardi
> ---
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