Galatians 1:10

From: Travis Bauer (
Date: Wed Sep 13 1995 - 06:17:41 EDT


        I'm reading Calvin's commentary on Galatians. On verse 1:10, he
asserts that there is an assumed kata in the verse so that it should be
translated, "Do I seek to persuade according to men or God," rather
than "Do I seek to please men or God?" He states that there is often an
implied kata in situations like verse 10. It this generally accepted. If
so, how can one identify such situations?

  / Travis Bauer / I fear that the mode of my life /
 / Jamestown College / has been changed to ASCII. /

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