From: Travis Bauer (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Sep 16 1995 - 05:16:28 EDT
Thanks to all for the comments on the Galatians passage. I took a
closer look at Luther's commentary, and it does seem that there is some
leaning towards Calvin's interpretation. Luther writes (I only have the
English translation of the commentary) that a possible translation of the
beginning of verse 10 is "Do I preach a man's doctrine, or God's?" However,
he explains the verse partly by saying that "we seek not the favour of men by
our doctrine," favoring the more obvious translation.
Given that Luther's interpretation in some respects resembles
Calvin's, could there be another explanation for assuming an implicit
kata besides Calvin's familiarity with Stoicism?
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