Re: Galatians 1:10

From: David Moore (
Date: Fri Sep 01 1995 - 12:09:09 EDT

On Fri, 1 Sep 1995, Travis Bauer wrote:

> Thanks to all for the comments on the Galatians passage. I took a
> closer look at Luther's commentary, and it does seem that there is some
> leaning towards Calvin's interpretation. Luther writes (I only have the
> English translation of the commentary) that a possible translation of the
> beginning of verse 10 is "Do I preach a man's doctrine, or God's?"

        You might want to look at it in Latin before you put anything on
paper about Luther's interpretation. My copy is also a translation, but
from a note including Luther's latin on the translation of the intitial
phrase, I wonder. It reads "For now preach I man's Doctrine or God's?"
but the Latin is, _Nunc enim homines suadeo an Deum?_, which, in my
rudimentary Latin, I understand as "Now do I, indeed, persuade men or
God." The translated text that follows, however, seems to give the same
sense as Travis has cited for Calvin. Maybe there is someone out there
with a copy of this commentary in Latin and the expertise in the language
to give us a more exact idea of Luther's comments on this passage.

David L. Moore Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida of the Assemblies of God Department of Education

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:26 EDT