Date: Tue Sep 19 1995 - 16:38:02 EDT
Being in the middle of preaching Ephesians, I have had occasion this past
couple of months to muddle through the Greek of this letter. I find it rather
puzzling, to say the least.
In terms of style analysis: Paul (?) seems to use clauses differently here than
in Galatians and Romans (both of which I've also read in Greek). But how is it
different? I *know* it's different, but I'm not sure how to articulate and
describe the differences. Who has done a syntactical/stylistic analysis of
this puzzling letter?
Perry L. Stepp, Baylor University
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