From: David Moore (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Sep 22 1995 - 12:19:41 EDT
Jim Williams (firstname.lastname@example.org) wrote:
>Does a NT Greek Text proof of the Diety of Jesus Christ 'have' to
>necessarily 'prove' the Doctrine of the Trinity? Doesn't it simply 'prove'
>that Jesus was Divine; i.e., (God)? Other possibilities could include
>Modalism, as well???
Of course, a handful of texts which show one thing from Scripture
do not a theology make. But when several texts clearly teach some truth
of Scripture, they do serve to indicate the limits of scriptural theology.
The passages that show Modalism to be unscriptural are not those which
teach the deity of Christ, but those which show the Father, Son and the
Holy Spirit acting simultaneously - Mat. 3:16-17 for instance.
David L. Moore Southeastern Spanish District
Miami, Florida of the Assemblies of God
email@example.com Department of Education
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