From: Kenneth Litwak (email@example.com)
Date: Fri Sep 22 1995 - 18:39:02 EDT
I have a few questions about the syntax in Mark 6:35ff.
1. At the end of v. 35, HdH horas pollH seems like it is missing
something. Literally I think it says "already/by that time many hours".
Does the verb genomenHs also govern this phrase, or is it more like
an idiom in Greek for saying "it's late".
2. v. 36. Should apelQontes be understood as a telic participle
"in order that they may go" or an attendant circumstance "in orer that,
after having departed". I think it's the former, but I'm not certain.
I'm also wondering stylistically about the use at the end of the verse
of phagosin. After ti I expected an infinitive: something to eat,
instead of something they may eat. Is this standard Greek or
3. V.39 sumposia sumposia, according to BDF, is an accusative of result.
Unfortunately, in its usual, helpful manner, BDF at this point neither
tells me where to find out what an accusative of result is, nor how
to best translate the phrase. It would be helpful if, when citing
a verse as an example of something, you translated it so others would
know how that kind of construction ought to be rendered or at least
point to where the construction is defined. Anyway, I take this to
be a distributive type of construction: by groups/in groups/group by
group. I don't know how that would show result. I'd appreciate some
insight here. Thanks.
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