From: Carolivia Herron (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Oct 03 1995 - 02:11:19 EDT
October 3, 1995
I'm reading 1 Chronicles in Hebrew and in the Septuagint,
and I'm wondering if there is some political (or other)
reason why the Septuagint uses the Greek work for
foreigner to translate the word Philistine. Can
someone help me in this?
Harvard Divinity School and Hebrew College
The corridor of the future is long,
is it perhaps infinite.
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