From: Ken Penner (email@example.com)
Date: Thu Oct 05 1995 - 23:01:06 EDT
On 3 Oct 95 at 6:11, Carolivia Herron wrote:
> I'm reading 1 Chronicles in Hebrew and in the Septuagint,
> and I'm wondering if there is some political (or other)
> reason why the Septuagint uses the Greek work for
> foreigner to translate the word Philistine. Can
> someone help me in this?
I don't have an explanation, but just yesterday when working on
Judges 13-16, I noticed a related phenomenon: codex A uses
ALLOFULWN and B uses FULISTIIM. Exceptions in B include 14:1,4.
The best reason we could come up with in class is that the editor
of A was explaining "Philistines" for his readers. But if that is
the case, why did the he not explain SIKERA (13:4)?
Greek T.A., Regent College, Vancouver
New Home page location: http://netshop.net/~mwardle/kpenner.htm
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