Date: Thu Oct 12 1995 - 20:19:03 EDT
One last (from me) word on tongues in Acts 2 and I Cor. 14. I am still
convinced (mostly by Stendahl) that Luke thinks what he is describing in Acts
2 is a miracle of language. Its the only place he uses the word DIALECTOS.
The other instances of tongues in Acts are probably there because they were
in Luke's sources and I would assume are ecstatic experiences as is I Cor 14.
Luke's main purpose is to give evidence of the presence of the Holy Spirit
in people who might not otherwise be accepted by the Jewish Christians
(Samaritans in 8 and Romans in 10 and 11). While Paul did not say it was not
language (Ken), he did say that his mind was "unfruitful" which I see as a
I would add a paraphrase from John Kildahl concerning modern tongues
speaking. We cannot find certain evidence documented by anyone qualified to
judge that any person has spoken in a language not previously learned while
in a state of tongues speaking. He evidently tried over a long period to
find such evidence.
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