re: Re: Romans 3:22-23

From: Eric Weiss (
Date: Sat Oct 14 1995 - 06:49:54 EDT

I agree with "Ellen," as that's been my experience. In the days of old
before I had taken any Greek, but had read a little about the difference
between the objective and the subjective genitive, I believed that Galatians
2:20, for example, should be translated "by faith IN the Son of God" (KJV
translates it "faith OF the Son of God"). Other passages in Galatians seemed
to support this as the correct reading, and I also used Hebrews 1:1 as a
"proof," i.e.: If faith is something hoped for, and the evidence of things
not seen, how can God (and hence the Son of God) have faith, since there is
nothing He hopes for nor is there anything not seen by Him? Hence the Son of
God in Gal. 2:20 is the Object of faith, not the Subject or Source of faith.
(Also note that Jesus is referred to here as the Son of God, not the Son of
Man--I'm not saying that Jesus as the Son of Man (i.e., as a Man during his
30+ years on the earth) did not have or exercise faith; but that's another
issue.) I was pretty adamant about it, mainly because a protagonist at
church was using this to prove that the KJV translation was the "best"
English Bible and that the other translations were WRONG in all kinds of
ways, this verse being one of his proofs. Anyway, while I still believe Gal.
2:20 is best translated "faith IN the Son of God," I am no longer so adamant,
having read a number of authorities who make a valid case for the subjective
genitive or genitive of source in phrases like "faith of Christ," etc. I'm
sure Paul knew what he meant, but it's kind of hard to ask him about it
(unless you're Emmanual Swedenborg--I read somewhere thatin his visions he
used to argue with the Apostle). Greek scholars, like Ellen says, seem to
allow for various interpretations and understandings.

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