Date: Sat Oct 21 1995 - 17:16:12 EDT
In a message dated 95-10-12 10:17:53 EDT, firstname.lastname@example.org (Bruce Terry)
>On Thu, 12 Oct 1995, Kirk DiVietro wrote:
>>Finally, Scrivener's text is the greek text of the King James Bible.
>Obviously the KJV was not translated from Scrivener's text. But the KJV
>we use today is the result of a revision by Scrivener. Did Scrivener change
>the textual base of the KJV to match his Greek text? Or was his production
>a Greek text an effort to produce the Greek text underlying the translation
>after the fact, much like what was done with the NEB?
>Surely Scrivener did not consider 1 John 5:7-8 as original? He was too good
>textual critic for that, even if he disagreed with Westcott & Hort.
Scrivener's Text is the text of the King James Bible. Did the KJV
translators use Scrivener's text? NO! I never said that. FHA Scrivener took
Beza's 1598 text and compared it to the King James Bible. He then noted
about 190 places where the KJV departed from Beza. He then "reversed
engineered" the text to accurately reflect the KJV. He did not comment on
the authenticity of I John 5:7-8.
Kirk the Konservative
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