From: Travis Bauer (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Mon Oct 23 1995 - 22:31:51 EDT
I'm wondering if anyone has an opinion on Luke's use of brefh in 18:15. Reiling and Swellengrebel's Translator's handbook on Luke indicates that the use of paidia later in the next verse indicates that Luke is talking about at least toddlers and not infants. But could the use of brefh indicate that Luke is talking about infants here? I know that the parallel passages only use paidia. I'm wondering specifically what Luke may have been trying to indicate.
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