Date: Sun Oct 29 1995 - 19:57:21 EST
In a message dated 95-10-28 20:38:17 EST, Carlton L. Winbery writes:
>The periphrastic aorist consist of the imperfect of EIMI with the aorist
>Robertson is right that the only one is a variant reading in John 18:38.
Just three comments:
1) Where is the rule that the periphrastic aorist consists of the imperfect
of EIMI with the aorist participle? Cannot the present of EIMI be used?
There may be one, but I am unaware of any such rule.
2) Robertson does not cite John 18:38, but quotes Blass for Luke 23:19 as the
only one. However, Blass does not say this in Blass-DeBrunner's grammer
which also gives John 18:38.
3) 2 Cor. 5:19 is not an Aorist participle, but a present: hWS hOTI QEOS HN
EN XRISTW KOSMON KATALASSWN hEAUTW, ....
Thanks for all the comments,
Professor of Greek at
Logos Bible Institute
13248 Roscoe Blvd.
Sun Valley, CA 91352
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