From: Stephen Carlson (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Nov 14 1995 - 16:48:46 EST
I haven't seen any replies to this, but there have been computer
problems last week, so I apologize in advance if I am retreading
Edgar M. Krentz wrote:
> The question is complicated by the context, since v.41 sys that Jesus had
> pity on the man (SPLAGXNISQEIS). The western text tradition, representedby
> Codex D and the Latin MSS a ff2 r1 reprent both one Old Latin and two Vg
> Mss reads ORGISQEIS instead of EMBRIMIHSAMENOS, apparently to remove the
> conflict with v. 43.
I think that more consideration needs to be given to the Western
reading. From a source critical perspective, I frankly can't see
how both Matthew and Luke would agree to remove SPLAGXNISQEIS, since
Matthew includes it even where Mark does not (20:34, cf. Mk10:52),
and Luke uses it to describe Jesus in his own special material (7:13).
On the other hand, while Mark does not use ORGISQEIS to describe Jesus
elsewhere, he did use MET' ORGHS at 3:5, which is lacking in the other
parallels (Mt12:13 Lk6:10).
ORGISQEIS fits the context better(*), and its harsh description of
Jesus, which Matthew and Luke do not include, may well be a "harder
reading" which was smoothed to SPLAGXNISQEIS. If ORGISQEIS is the
correct reading here, then EMBRIMHSAMENOS presents little difficulty.
(*) I'm aware that fitting the context better is also an argument
for being less original (i.e., an "easier reading"), but we need to
consider the whole picture.
-- Stephen Carlson : Poetry speaks of aspirations, : ICL, Inc. firstname.lastname@example.org : and songs chant the words. : 11490 Commerce Park Dr. (703) 648-3330 : Shujing 2:35 : Reston, VA 22091 USA
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