From: brent justin anduaga-arias (
Date: Mon Feb 26 1996 - 15:11:49 EST

  The RSV in 1st John 5:13 states "I write THIS to you..." All of my
other English translations have "I write THESE THINGS to you..." Is
there a grammatical reason for the RSV's departure or is it just
"translator's liberty?"

  Also, in Hebrews 10:12 some of my English translations say "...offered
FOR ALL TIME..." while others say "...sat down FOREVER..." The Greek word
(which is being translated variously as indicated) seems to have
ambiguity as to what its object is. Does the confusion arise purely from
ambiguity of grammar or is context contributing to the translator's

  Again, in Romans 3:25 the RSV says "... to be received BY faith." The
Greek word here is DIA, which I have always presumed means "through" - by
which other translations indeed render this word. Can someone tell me if
there is a grammatic reason for "by" or is it again just "translator's

I give thanks in advance for any assistance offered.

Brent Arias
University of New Mexico.

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