From: Gary S. Shogren (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Mar 06 1996 - 17:54:44 EST
If I understand your criteria rightly, KATALAMBANW is a prime example - does
it mean "comprehendeth it not (KJV)" in John 1:5 or "did not overcome it"?
What I find interesting is that both make very good sense in the immediate
context, and fairly decent sense in the context of Johannine theological
vocab. I seem to recall that Carson lists the verse in Exegetical
Fallacies, reminding us not to try to work BOTH meanings into a single
context unless there's evidence of a play on words. By the way - Exegetical
Fallacies is shortly to be re-released in an updated form.
At 10:29 AM 3/6/96 -0700, you wrote:
> I was wondering if I could solicit submittals of everyone's favorite
>Greek words which meet the criteria of having a notoriously context
>sensitive definition. As an example I will present my own weak example.
> The RSV translates the Greek word HNTHY(KS)HIS (I used 'KS' in place of
>xsi, not knowing which latin to use...) in 1st Timothy 2:1 as
>"intercessions" but it translates the same word in 1st Timothy 4:4 as
>"thanksgiving." Clearly "intercessions" is not equal to "thanksgiving."
> Now I know that you folks out there can think of better examples than
>the one I have just presented, so if you offer them I will be much
>appreciative. (yes, there is a point to this excersize - I'm not doing
>this to waste everyone's time).
>University of New Mexico
Gary S. Shogren
Biblical Theological Seminary
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