Date: Fri Mar 29 1996 - 10:56:51 EST
I had always understood that the first corrector of Sianaticus was the original
scribe, but Aland (in the introduction to the NA27, p. 48*) dates the first
corrector "4th-6th century." Am I wrong about the first corrector being the
original scribe? Or is Aland regarding several different correctors/hands
together under the 1st corrector sign?
Further: if the first corrector of Sianaticus *was* the original scribe, what
value is there in differentiating between the original hand and the first
corrector when they differ? Shouldn't it be clear that the variant was a
scribal error, corrected when the scribe checked his copy against the exemplar,
and thus useless for determining the better reading, etc.?
Grace and peace,
Perry L. Stepp, Baylor University
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:39 EDT