Date: Fri Apr 26 1996 - 00:19:07 EDT
I've already gotten several responses to my question about Acts 19:14.
Thanks! Now, however, I've been looking long and hard at Acts 19:16, and
I've concluded that Luke's style is really wild.
According to the majority reading--which I'm following, but which I don't
want to defend right now =) --there's a present masculine participle,
something which is either a neuter singular aorist participle or a third
person plural aorist verb, and the main verb--third person singular. It's
usually translated with three finite verbs, and that gets the sense across.
But what would be the most "literal" translation, best reflecting the
participles in the Greek?
"And, the man in whom the evil spirit was leaping on them, it (the spirit?)
having overpowered them, it/he prevailed against them. . . "???
Thanks in advance for your help.
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