Translating Implict Information

Date: Tue Apr 30 1996 - 14:04:45 EDT

In this post I want to respond to Bill Caulfield's comments about the it's
in Gal 3:18. If I understand him correctly, he is suggesting that the NASB
is implying "righteousness" as the referent of the second "it", and perhaps
this is something I need to look into. I don't read "it" the same way, but
instead I see the immediate "inheritance" as the referent. This seems obvious
from the context, so my point about having added words necessary for English
in roman would apply here. In the Greek there of course is no indication
(or rather direct indication) of the referent of either "it" (the use of
this pronoun itself is technically a subjective decision on the part of the
translators), but the context seems clear to me for both. I would like to
know how Bill infers "righteousness" because I may be missing something very
important. So Bill, please clarify (feel free to reply to me off-line if
you wish).

Don Wilkins
UC Riverside
The Lockman Foundation

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