Fwd: Holy Spirit in Islam and in New Teatament Thinking

From: Mr. Timothy T. Dickens (MDick39708@gnn.com)
Date: Tue Apr 30 1996 - 00:47:27 EDT

Brother George (gramsey@cs1.presby.edu),

Here is the message that I sent to my Muslim friend before sending
it to b-greek.

Any Ideas

>>Brother Tim:
>>I think what Yusuf Ali is trying to say is that the original word
>>used by John, which could be either Periclytos &/or Pericyte,
>>has a different meaning or conotation than the present day
>>word Paraclete &/or Paracletos, mentioned in the Gospel of John.
>Brother Akbar,
> PERIclytos is not the word used (see my previous
message); the
>correct term is PARAcletos. It can not be both, as you said
>Periclytos &/or Pericyte."
>>As for the Arabic meanings for Muahmmad and Ahmed;
>>The name Muhammad means "the Praised one" or "he who is
>>according to the Concise Encyclopedia of Islam by Cyril Glasse.
>>And, the name "Ahmed" is a superlative form, meaning
>>"the most laudable."
> Brother Akbar, if this is correct, then I can understand why
>Islamic scholars prefer PERICLYTOS over PARACLETOS. Periclytos in

>greek means "noble" "glorious" "famous" or "excellent."
>(Liddell-Scott Greek Lexicon) This definitely means something
>different from what the gospel writer used.
>>As for me, the word "Paraclete" or "Advocate" is good enough
>>to demonstrate that the next Advocate ("another Paraclete")
>>to come after Jesus, had to be a male figure. The reason being;
>>in his Epistle 1Jn.2:1, the apostle John has used the same
>>terminology/word for Christ Jesus.
> Brother Akbar, in the gospel of John, the writer calls in
>several places (14:16-17,26;15:26;15:7-8,13) the Paraclete either
>the Holy-Spirit, or Spirit of Truth and NOT a MAN.
> In admitting that there are sometimes certain errors or
>problems in the Bible, why should Christians (or anyone else) over

>look the textual integrity of this portion of scripture and supply

>another meaning totally foreign to what the gospel writer wrote?
>To say, Jesus was a
>>"Holy Spirit" and not a "Holy Man"; is to deny his birth
>>from Virgin Mary as well as his bodily crucifixion, the
>>sheding of his blood and the ceremony of Eucharist.
> This is definitely a misunderstanding of the paraclete
>discourse in John. John (or Christians for that matter) are not
>saying that Jesus was the "Holy Spirit" as you said above. The
>idea is that the Holy-Spirit would be an advocate LIKE Jesus. To
>miss the advocacy of Jesus for his disciples in John 14-16 is to
>miss a very important presuppositional element for understanding
>the ROLE of the paraclete in John. The Holy-Spirit is an advocate

>for the believers.
> I hope this helps and I will continue to reply as time goes
>along as God wills it.
> Peace and Love, Tim

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