From: Kevin J Buchs (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Jun 28 1996 - 08:06:36 EDT
Frankly I have my Hebrew and Greek confused. I can't remember how the
definitness of a genetive phrase works if there is no definite article on
the primary noun but there is on the genetive. My example is Mat. 10:36.
Is it: "the enemy of the man"
Or: "an enemy of the man"
Kevin Buchs, Vicar [ email@example.com ]
St. Paul Lutheran, Blue Earth, Minnesota
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