From: Jonathan Robie (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Aug 20 1996 - 15:31:24 EDT
Please excuse the rapid-fire questions here, but I'm so thrilled to
finally be able to get answers when I'm reading...
In John 16:9-11, we have a MEN-DE construction with three clauses:
PERI hAMARTIAS MEN, hOTI OU PISTEUOUSIN EIS EME
PERI DIKAIOSUNHS DE, hO PROS TON PATERA hUPAGW KAI OUKETI QEWREITE ME
PERI DE KRISEWS, hOTI hO ARXWN TOU KOSMOU TOUTOU KEKRITAI.
Four out of five dentists surveyed translate this passage as though
MEN-DE were not there at all; e.g., the NRSV translates it this way:
"about sin, because they do not believe in me; about righteousness,
because I am going to the father and you will see me no longer; about
judgement, because the ruler of this world has been condemned".
As far as I can tell, this would be an equally appropriate translation
if MEN-DE were simply omitted:
PERI hAMARTIAS, hOTI OU PISTEUOUSIN EIS EME
PERI DIKAIOSUNHS, hO PROS TON PATERA hUPAGW KAI OUKETI QEWREITE ME
PERI KRISEWS, hOTI hO ARXWN TOU KOSMOU TOUTOU KEKRITAI.
What is the meaning of MEN-DE-DE in this context? Could it be removed
without loss of meaning, or does it change the meaning of the sentence?
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