From: Jonathan Robie (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Aug 22 1996 - 22:17:44 EDT
I asked this last week, but nobody responded. In John 16:9-11, we have a MEN-DE
construction with three clauses:
PERI hAMARTIAS MEN, hOTI OU PISTEUOUSIN EIS EME
PERI DIKAIOSUNHS DE, hO PROS TON PATERA hUPAGW KAI OUKETI QEWREITE ME
PERI DE KRISEWS, hOTI hO ARXWN TOU KOSMOU TOUTOU KEKRITAI.
The English translations I have seen would be equally valid if
MEN-DE were not there at all; e.g., the NRSV translates it this way:
"about sin, because they do not believe in me; about righteousness,
because I am going to the father and you will see me no longer; about
judgement, because the ruler of this world has been condemned".
How does MEN-DE-DE affect the meaning of the verse? Would it change the
meaning at all to just omit it, like this:
PERI hAMARTIAS, hOTI OU PISTEUOUSIN EIS EME
PERI DIKAIOSUNHS, hO PROS TON PATERA hUPAGW KAI OUKETI QEWREITE ME
PERI KRISEWS, hOTI hO ARXWN TOU KOSMOU TOUTOU KEKRITAI.
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