From: Rick Strelan (R.Strelan@mailbox.uq.oz.au)
Date: Wed Oct 09 1996 - 22:37:45 EDT
I'd welcome any comments on two aspect of Mk 14:67: just why is the older
form (at least I believe it is that) HSTHA used - is it at all possible
that it reflects the spoken Greek of Jerusalem?? Would Peter have conversed
on this occasion in Greek,then?
Secondly, the statement emphasises on the one hand Peter (SU) and on the
other hand, Jesus (IHSOU) which is separated from TOU NAZARHNOU.
Presumably, the verb HSTHA operates for both nouns. But isn't it
grammatically possibly to read the sentence with the sense: "You were with
the Nazarene. You were of Jesus (ie, you belonged to Jesus - cf 1 Cor
1:12)"? In other words, the preposition META governs the first noun but not
I hope I have made myself understood!
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