Re: John 3:35

From: Elbert Joseph (tekle@netwave.ca)
Date: Sun Oct 20 1996 - 10:40:14 EDT


>Eric Weiss observed
>>EVERY translation I've checked .... into (in) His (Christ's/the Son's)
hand(s)."
and asked
>>Is there any reason why it can't be translated: "...and He (the Father)
>>has given all things (to the Son) by His (the Father's) hand."?
>>Is the DEDWKEN awkward if there is no person to whom or into whose hands
>>PANTA is given? Is EN THi CEIRI AUTOU an idiomatic phrase the means
>>"into his hands" "into/under his authority" when I guess I would expect
>>a preposition other than EN?

I agree with Winberry that there is no movement, an accusative would be
better (to complement the aorist of DIDWMI), and that there may be some
loose usage in John's work.

I have made a similar observation (loose use?) in the following verse.

hOTAN DE ELQH EKEINO TO PNEUMA THS ALHQEIAS, hODHGHSEI hUMAS EN TH ALHQEIA
PASH. (John 16:13)
I've checked 11 English versions and all use the preposition INTO. I prefer
to think that when the early believers received Holy Spirit that they were
in possession of ALL TRUTH (to wit. the sum of all truth), i.e. Y'SHUA. The
current English readings seem to have resulted in believers expecting MORE
_TRUTHS_ beyond and sometimes apart from the revelation of MESSIANIC SALVATION.

How about an instrumental expression of the John 16:13 phrase: WITH ALL TRUTH?

_-=_-=_-=_-=_-=_-=_-=_-=_-=_-=
Elbert Joseph
Salt that refuses to be trampled
tekle@newtave.ca (Elbert Joseph)



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