From: John Oaklands (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Jan 19 1997 - 14:06:26 EST
Thank you for your interesting posting. I did encourage the young teacher
to keep on with his Greek, though he was already highly motivated, like I
could wish more could be!
I like what you say about those who make the translations do read the Greek
text. I think your illustraltion re "what kind of 'glasses'?" is to the
point--excellent, in fact. I was interested in your translation. On the
other hand I think of PAREIMI more in the sense of something the readers
would have, something present with them. Doesn't ALHQEIA have to be ALHQEIA
at all times and in whatever era? Or is there ALHQEIA for Noah's day,
Abraham's, Moses'. Jesus', etc. as this passage is often interpreted from
the mere English rendering? I'd be interested to know why you see the
translations I cited (NRSV, Mod German, Mod French) as being so far off
course and theologically biased.
I see them as moved away from orthodoxy, though you apparently don't and
perhaps you have some more you can share to this end--when your day comes
around to you, since you are probably in the early hours of the morning in
Athens. I'd also be interested in the comments of others here. My main
concern is with what the Greek is saying and how it should best come across
in English (or German or French etc). And possibly the KJV was influenced
by the Latin Vulgate which has "in praesenti veritate", not that being so
influenced was necessarily unfortunate.
In other words, can you please tell me more about why you would translate as
you do. In that I am most interested.
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