From: Bob Meyers (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Feb 09 1997 - 11:50:10 EST
I have a problem with the uses of allelous/eautous,
particularly in Eph. 4:32, Col. 3:13, and Col. 3:16.
I'm told varying things from different commentators and
face to face consultants. Some say that allelous is
transitive and eautous is reflexive, PERIOD.
Another says that with an associated pros, eautous can
be transitive, but NEVER without it.
That would mean Eph. 4:32 is saying not that we should
forgive ONE ANOTHER, but rather that we should forgive
OUR OWN SELVES, as Christ has forgiven us. That's an
interesting and rather delightful concept; but is it
correct? Especially as the first part of the verse has
allelous, rather than eautous? I don't see any pros in
the verse, either.
It would also say that Colossians 3:13 is just about completely
unintelligible: "putting up with ONE ANOTHER, and forgiving YOUR OWN
SELVES when anyone has a complaint against ANOTHER, just as Christ
forgave YOU. [???]
It would also say that Colossians 3:16 cannot be used to show that we
should teach one another, but only teach our own selves --- which doesn't
seem right at all. I know "pastors" would love to use this, just as they
love to use Eph. 4:11 ("pastor-teachers") to prove that they are the only
ones qualified for any conceivable ministry, in the Church. Which
results in the whole ridiculous format (in my sincere belief --- I
believe it's the absolute disobedience of the entire purpose and method
of the Church, given in Eph. 4:3-16; and is the fundamental reason the
"Church" is the mess and failure it is, today) followed by the "churches"
everywhere, except in a few groups such as the Plymouth Bretheren (and
even they are abandoning the alternative obedience to Col. 3:16 in far
too many places, recently) And who is qualified to "teach" himself?
I guess, in general, aren't the meanings of some of these words
("proginosko," in the hands of Calvinists, is another, eg in Rom. 8:29)
derived from pre-conceived theology, rather than from pre-greek
considerations? (on theology@iclnet, I know I posted this question
before; but I'm pursuing it again; the very few replies there seemed to
agree, with one expressing appallation at the implications of the question).
I know this has probably already been discussed extensively on the
virginia greek list; and apologize for missing out and bringing up old
stuff again --- but would appreciate answers from opinionated people,
perhaps via reposted articles or private e-mail if you wish.
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