Re: James 5:16 Sins or faults?

From: Carlton Winbery (
Date: Sat Feb 15 1997 - 12:44:35 EST

James Slayton wrote;

>>>>>>First off, I am not a greek scholar in any sence. I have very little basic
understanding of the greek language. I do, however, have about seventy-five
renditions of the Bible.

>>>>>>Anyway, I wanted to ask about James 5:16. Has anyone ever noticed that in
some translations, that it says,". . .confess your faults. . .", while others
say, ". . .confess your sins. . ."? I understand that the greek word is
different depending on what text is used. I know so far that the Textus
Receptus is the only manuscript where this comes from. I have other
translations of the Bible that use the word faults here like "The Bible in
Modern English", by Ferrar Fenton and "The Holy Bible From the Ancient
Eastern Text", by George Lamsa, and the Amplified Bible. I have other
translations that use the word,"Trespass" here, like "Young's Literal
Translation" and The New King James version.

>>>>>>I know some will disagree with me, but I believe there is a difference in
meaning when it comes to confessing sins and confessing your faults or
trespasses. That is why I think this is important.<<<<<<<

In the N-A26 there is a substitution indicated in the MSS. In place of TAS
hAMARTIAS (the reading in Aleph, A, B, & C & most of the Alexandrine mss)
the Byzantine tradition has TA PARAPTWMATA (K, L, O49 & the majority of
Byzantine mss).

Some translate TA PARAPTWMATA as "transgression" and TAS hAMARTIAS as
"sins," but in my opinion they must be treated as synonyms and refer to
willful acts of transgression. I would certainly see no reason to
translate them as "faults."

Carlton L. Winbery
Fogleman Professor of Religion
Chair, Division of Religious Studies
voice 318 487-7241
fax 318 442-4996

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